Tobit or not Tobit

 

My son gave me a REALLY big “Complete 100-Book Apocrypha” for Christmas. I read a few things there, then bought the very reasonable Kindle version.

Growing up Baptist, I barely knew the Apocrypha existed, other than being told that “it was stuff Catholics added” (turns out it was stuff Protestant sects removed).

Like the positions of most “post-Luther” sects, the answer is more complicated than that. The “canonical” books of the Christian Bible were established by the Council of Rome under Pope Damasus in 382 and affirmed many times.

The Catholic Church considers the “Canon of Augustine” as being “the Bible,” with the Old and New Testaments being the “core,” and the remaining books of the Augustinian Bible being “The Apocrypha” (more accurately, “Deuterocanonical”). If you want to dig a level deeper, here is a link to Augustine’s selections which are the Catholic Bible and considered “important” by LCMS Lutherans (Luther included in his translation).

Having struggled through “City of God,” I believe Augustine is a figure in church history that all denominations desiring to be called Christian need to consider. Sadly, American Protestantism largely ignores nearly all church history. The belief seems to be that the KJV and whatever more recent translations they select are THE Bible, and “history is bunk”. This is somewhat interesting as they are typically all about the LITERAL text with little concern as to how that text came to be. I found this to be interesting on the origin of the KJV.

While the current KJV is considered to be one of the best — if not THE best — translations, it was done (very carefully) by humans, published by humans, and therefore required some revisions due to errors. The following from the “origin” link above is an entertaining example. One word can really matter … as is often the case with “is” in theology and Clintonian legality.

Some errors in subsequent editions have become famous. Perhaps the most notorious example is the so-called “Wicked Bible” (1631), whose byname derives from the omission of “not” in the injunction against adultery in the Ten Commandments (“Thou shalt commit adultery”).

Back to Tobit. It is a short book written somewhat like a novel. It tells the story of a righteous man (Tobit) living in exile in Nineveh, who has a son (Tobias) who needs a wife. He goes on a journey with a “messenger” to Rages of Media where a relative, Raguel, has a daughter, Sarah.

On the way, they stop by the river Tigris and a fish leaps out. The messenger has Tobias cut out the heart, liver and bile. Tobias is informed that in case a demon is encountered, the heart and the liver can be burned, and the smoke will drive the demon away.

Coincidentally, it turns out that Sarah has been married to 7 men, but on their wedding nights they all “perished in the bride chamber”. As Tobias enters the bride’s chamber, realizing it must be a demon that killed the men, he burns incense with the heart and liver of the fish, and in the morning, all is well! The 14-day wedding feast is observed, and Tobias, Sarah and the messenger return to Tobit.

We discover that the “messenger,” Raphael, is one of the seven angels mentioned in Revelation 8:2–6. Sons are born and both Tobit and Tobias live long and prosperous lives!

The message is that if you live righteously as Tobit did, God will send His angel to watch over you, the forces of evil will be defeated, and you will live happily ever after. This doctrine is much more evident in the OT, whereas in the New, Jesus says many times that the more you follow him, the more trouble you will have, but to take heart because he has overcome the world.

Is Tobit “true”? Is Shakespeare “true”? Was the KJV Bible “true” before the errors were fixed, and is it a “true” translation now?

Religion, like life, is not as cut and dried as the more “fundamental” Christians today prefer. But the same Christians tell us that “baptism is only a symbol,” while the Bible they confess to be literally true says in 1 Peter 3:21, “The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ”

To paraphrase Scotty, “I’m a computer scientist, not a theologian!”.

Deciding who will be in Heaven is up to Christ, not me, and I’d argue it’s not up to anyone on Earth to be “the one true church”. Proverbs 22:4 says “Humility is the fear of the Lord; its wages are riches and honor and life.”

Pride is its opposite, and I am among the Christians who believe it is the greatest sin because it was the sin of the Fall. Essentially, “not God’s way but mine”.

The origin of this quote is uncertain, but I fear it often applies to me:

“It’s better to keep your mouth shut and appear stupid than open it and remove all doubt.”

Published in Religion and Philosophy
Tags:

This post was promoted to the Main Feed at the recommendation of Ricochet members. Like this post? Want to comment? Join Ricochet’s community of conservatives and be part of the conversation. Join Ricochet for Free.

There are 191 comments.

Become a member to join the conversation. Or sign in if you're already a member.
  1. Saint Augustine Member
    Saint Augustine
    @SaintAugustine

    Painter Jean (View Comment):

    Saint Augustine (View Comment):

    Painter Jean (View Comment):

    What is your proof that all of of the oral Tradition was written down?

    For a start, what’s the proof that it wasn’t?

    You’re asking me to prove a negative?

    I’m suggesting you prove a positive:

    What’s your reason to think that among all those things not written down was some important piece of infallible apostolic teaching?

    St. Paul says that the pillar and foundation of truth is the Church, not the Scriptures.

    And that metaphor entails infallibility?

    Why is that a “metaphor”?

    Because when you call a community a pillar, that’s a metaphor.

    The binding judgment is infallible because the Council explicitly claims the involvement of the Holy Spirit: “For it has seemed good to the Holy Spirit and to us to lay upon you no greater burden than these necessary things: that you abstain from what has been sacrificed to idols and from blood and from what is strangled and from unchastity” (Acts 15:28–29). Do you not believe that the Holy Spirit is infallible?

    The Holy Spirit is.

    The Apostles are.

    But what is your reason to think that they conferred some of this infallibility on those who replaced them as church leaders?

    In context, it appears to the opposite: Here are the rules for deacons and elders because the church really needs to support the truth correctly because it is fully capable of screwing it up.

    Yes, the rules need to be spelled out because humans make mistakes, and the Church is a human as well as a divine one. Which is why her infallibity is restricted to specific circumstances.

    Cross-reference to Titus 1, and you find that the church’s role as described here is faithfulness to a faithful word already given

    That is hardly a complete image of the Church presented in the Scriptures.

    Indeed.  But which passage(s) support Magisterial infallibility?

    Yes, if you think of the Apostles as being outside of Scripture.

    Yes, that’s obvious. They were human beings that existed and taught and governed. If the New Testament was never written and all we had was oral tradition, they would have still existed and taught and governed.

    But their teachings were written down, infallibly.

    I’ve been looking for evidence that they passed on some infallibility to those who replaced them as church leaders. I’ve found precious little. (I have found only apparently accurate appeal to late patristic sources.)

    I see it in their laying on of hands on their successors, the bishops. And there are earlier sources than “late patristic.” Here’s St. Irenaeus again: “With that church, because of its superior origin, all the churches must agree, that is, all the faithful in the whole world, and it is in her that the faithful everywhere have maintained the apostolic tradition (Against Heresies 3:3:2 [A.D. 189]).

    Laying on of hands conveys infallibility? Where is that in the Bible?

    Without any context, the best I can infer from Irenaeus here is that the church is a highly reliable indicator of what teaching is infallible, not that it has infallibility itself.

    “Wherefore it is incumbent to obey the presbyters who are in the Church — those who, as I have shown, possess the succession from the apostles; those who, together with the succession of the episcopate, have received the certain gift of truth [charisma veritatis certum], according to the good pleasure of the Father.”

    And here–same thing.  (Certus/certa/certum can mean fixed or settled or reliable.)

    But it would behoove me to study him more.  I’ll add him to a list!

    Here are some others:

    • St. Cyprian: The Church herself also is uncorrupted … (Epistle 72: To Jubaianus)
    • Tertullian: All doctrine must be prejudged as false which savors of contrariety to the truth of the churches and apostles of Christ and God. (The Prescription Against Heretics, chapter 21)
    • Origen: As the teaching of the Church, transmitted in orderly succession from the apostles, and remaining in the Churches to the present day, is still preserved, that alone is to be accepted as truth which differs in no respect from ecclesiastical and apostolical tradition. ( De Principiis)
    • St. Athanasius: It is enough merely to answer such things as follows: we are content with the fact that this is not the teaching of the Catholic Church, nor did the Fathers hold this. (Letter No. 59 to Epictetus)
    • St. Ambrose: Seeing, therefore, that men who agree not among themselves have all alike conspired against the Church of God, I shall call those whom I have to answer by the common name of heretics. (Exposition of the Christian Faith)
    • St. Augustine: It is obvious; the faith allows it; the Catholic Church approves; it is true. ( Sermon 117)
    • St. Cyril of Alexandria: The Church, having Christ for a foundation, and an immovable support, is perfectly immovable. (Commentary on Isaiah)

    Oh, this again?

    https://ricochet.com/394549/the-church-fathers-and-sola-scriptura/

    As for Augustine specifically: I’ve written three more books on him than most other folks on Ricochet, and haven’t yet noticed an objection to SS.  Still keeping my eyes open, and hoping to study one source in particular that might have something. Wish I had more time for him and the other Fathers!

    Now take this quote here:  “Manifestum est, admittit fides, approbat Ecclesia catholica, verum est: it is manifest; the faith grants it; the universal church approves it; it is true.”

    In immediate context, “it” is the fact that Jesus was born. It appears he’s appealing to Scripture and church, which certainly does not mean that he holds the latter infallible alongside the former. Can’t say more without more time and more context.

    Does the Bible not teach that infallibility accompanies the ability to give the Word of G-d to G-d’s people?

    No, it doesn’t.

    Yes, it does.  See every single instance of infallibility in the Bible from Moses to John.

    The Word of God is inerrant, not individual pastors who are giving the Word to His people.

    Indeed.

    Every instance (of many) of infallibility goes along with the ability to give the Word of G-d to G-d’s people. Is there some instance I’m missing? Or is there some other flaw in this reasoning?

    I don’t understand what you’re saying here.

    Then stop disagreeing until you do understand.

    In the Scriptures, I see the Apostles building a Church which governs, and in Acts I see infallibilty being claimed for the judgment of the Council. I see the laying on of hands – am.I supposed to think the infallibility of the Church wasn’t needed anymore after the Apostles?! Heresies rose up in their time, and have ever since.

    I think it was not needed, and what not possible after the Apostles died.

    Give me a reason to think otherwise.

    Heresies arise–that’s a reason we need an infallible teaching.  We have it. It’s the Bible.

    What heresy is the Bible insufficient to refute?

    • #61
  2. Saint Augustine Member
    Saint Augustine
    @SaintAugustine

    Scott Wilmot (View Comment):

    It appears that Sola Scriptura continues to expand as this never-ending argument continues. Now SS is inclusive of oral tradition.

    SS always included such oral tradition as was included in the written Scriptures.  This is not a new idea or a change.

    And apparently it has all been written down even though St. John said:

    This is the disciple who is testifying to these things and has written them, and we know that his testimony is true. But there are also many other things that Jesus did; if every one of them were written down, I suppose that the world itself could not contain the books that would be written.

    Yes, John says that. And he says that these things he has written have been written or stand written–Greek gegraptai–so that we may believe and have life (John 20:31).

    Where does he say that we also need this other information on the other things Jesus did in order to believe or have life, or that our joy may be complete (1 John 1:4), or for some other reason? Where does he say that someone else is maintaining that extra information infallibly?

    And has some other thing Jesus did been cited in an infallible pronunciation from the Magisterium? Has that ever happened?

    • #62
  3. Painter Jean Moderator
    Painter Jean
    @PainterJean

    Saint Augustine (View Comment):

    Scott Wilmot (View Comment):

    It appears that Sola Scriptura continues to expand as this never-ending argument continues. Now SS is inclusive of oral tradition.

    SS always included such oral tradition as was included in the written Scriptures. This is not a new idea or a change.

    And apparently it has all been written down even though St. John said:

    This is the disciple who is testifying to these things and has written them, and we know that his testimony is true. But there are also many other things that Jesus did; if every one of them were written down, I suppose that the world itself could not contain the books that would be written.

    Yes, John says that. And he says that these things he has written have been written or stand written–Greek gegraptai–so that we may believe and have life (John 20:31).

    Where does he say that we also need this other information on the other things Jesus did in order to believe or have life, or that our joy may be complete (1 John 1:4), or for some other reason? Where does he say that someone else is maintaining that extra information infallibly?

    And has some other thing Jesus did been cited in an infallible pronunciation from the Magisterium? Has that ever happened?

    Tell me what part of oral teaching is included in the written Scriptures. What you appear to be saying is that all of the oral, Apostolic Tradition was written down, but nowhere in Scripture does it make that claim. Sola scriptura is self-refuting. 

    • #63
  4. Painter Jean Moderator
    Painter Jean
    @PainterJean

    Teeger (View Comment):

    Painter Jean (View Comment):

    Teeger (View Comment):

     

    Mary can be compared to Eve, but it doesn’t logically follow that because Jesus is Last Adam that Mary is new Eve. Eve did not cause the fall of the human race, Adam did. Eve fell on her own account without affecting others. Stick with what the Bible actually says instead drawing all kinds of unjustified parallels. If you’re not careful you might be accused of deifying Mary.

    “Eve fell on her own account without affecting others”? Maybe you should heed your own advice and “stick with what the Bible actually says.” This is what the Biible says: “When the woman saw that the fruit of the tree was good for food and pleasing to the eye, and also desirable for gaining wisdom, she took some and ate it. She also gave some to her husband, who was with her, and he ate it.” How can you assert that Eve’s sin didn’t affect others, when the Bible clearly indicates that it did?

    Adam could have refused. She tempted him ignorantly. She did not cause the Fall.

    Did I say that she did? I was disputing your claim that her decision to sin and eat the forbidden fruit, and give it to Adam, didn’t affect others, to use your term.

    • #64
  5. Painter Jean Moderator
    Painter Jean
    @PainterJean

    What’s your reason to think that among all those things not written down was some important piece of infallible apostolic teaching?

    Because, among other functions, the Church governs and the Church protects the deposit of Faith. There is no reason to think that the infallible judgment of the Church as exercised by a Council would not need to be exercised again. And it did. You’re not ignorant of history, so I presume you are aware of the many heresies which beset the early Church. Almost invariably, the heretics used Scripture to bolster their view. You can’t put the Scriptures on a stand and ask it questions and get an infallible answer. The proof of this is what I have said before a number of times here: with sola scriptura as a guiding doctrine, Protestants have utter doctrinal chaos and there are far more divisions within Protestantism than you will find in the Apostolic churches. As I mentioned before, when I left atheism and was coming back to Christianity, I was convinced the Catholic church was in error. But after attending a variety of Protestant sola scriptura denominations, I realized that there was just too much chaos. I could go down the street from one Protestant denomination and be told contradictory doctrines. “In Essentials Unity, In Non-Essentials Liberty, In All Things Charity” – but there’s no unity on what is considered essential. Are the Apostolic churches free from disagreement and division? No, but the differences are not nearly as great and the divisions nowhere near as numerous. The fruits of sola scriptura are poor.

    • #65
  6. Saint Augustine Member
    Saint Augustine
    @SaintAugustine

    Painter Jean (View Comment):

    Saint Augustine (View Comment):

    Scott Wilmot (View Comment):

    It appears that Sola Scriptura continues to expand as this never-ending argument continues. Now SS is inclusive of oral tradition.

    SS always included such oral tradition as was included in the written Scriptures. This is not a new idea or a change.

    And apparently it has all been written down even though St. John said:

    This is the disciple who is testifying to these things and has written them, and we know that his testimony is true. But there are also many other things that Jesus did; if every one of them were written down, I suppose that the world itself could not contain the books that would be written.

    Yes, John says that. And he says that these things he has written have been written or stand written–Greek gegraptai–so that we may believe and have life (John 20:31).

    Where does he say that we also need this other information on the other things Jesus did in order to believe or have life, or that our joy may be complete (1 John 1:4), or for some other reason? Where does he say that someone else is maintaining that extra information infallibly?

    And has some other thing Jesus did been cited in an infallible pronunciation from the Magisterium? Has that ever happened?

    Tell me what part of oral teaching is included in the written Scriptures.

    Hard to be sure, but I suspect a fair chunk of the Gospels were oral tradition before Mark, Luke, and Matthew wrote them down.  The basic summaries of the Gospel–things like 1 Corinthians 15–were no doubt passed around orally a lot.

    Small, simple, but perfect example: Philippians 2:6-11. Often thought to be a hymn, this was almost certainly an oral teaching that made its way into the written Scriptures.

    What you appear to be saying is that all of the oral, Apostolic Tradition was written down, but nowhere in Scripture does it make that claim. Sola scriptura is self-refuting.

    I’m not saying that at all.

    I’m saying all the oral and Apostolic teaching we need was written down.

    And I’m saying no one has the authority to write it down infallibly–not unless he also is able to write new Scripture, which he isn’t.

    • #66
  7. Saint Augustine Member
    Saint Augustine
    @SaintAugustine

    Painter Jean (View Comment):

    What’s your reason to think that among all those things not written down was some important piece of infallible apostolic teaching?

    Because, among other functions, the Church governs and the Church protects the deposit of Faith. There is no reason to think that the infallible judgment of the Church as exercised by a Council would not need to be exercised again. And it did. You’re not ignorant of history, so I presume you are aware of the many heresies which beset the early Church. Almost nvariably, the heretics used Scripture to bolster their view.

    They used it inaccurately.

    One proof of this is that in refuting them the church always cited Scripture as a sufficient refutation.

    . . . The proof of this is what I have said before a number of times here: with sola scriptura as a guiding doctrine, Protestants have utter doctrinal chaos and there are far more divisions within Protestantism than you will find in the Apostolic churches. . . . The fruits of sola scriptura are poor.

    An interesting and important topic. I can’t recall very well what happened the last time we talked about this–or the last time I and someone else talked about it, if so it was.  I’m also tired and busy and probably won’t even try to be thorough.

    But I’ll make at least one observation: This might be evidence that there is something wrong with Protestantism and/or that we could really use an infallible authority.  But that’s not proof that there is such an authority.

    • #67
  8. Painter Jean Moderator
    Painter Jean
    @PainterJean

    Saint Augustine (View Comment):

    Painter Jean (View Comment):

    What’s your reason to think that among all those things not written down was some important piece of infallible apostolic teaching?

    Because, among other functions, the Church governs and the Church protects the deposit of Faith. There is no reason to think that the infallible judgment of the Church as exercised by a Council would not need to be exercised again. And it did. You’re not ignorant of history, so I presume you are aware of the many heresies which beset the early Church. Almost nvariably, the heretics used Scripture to bolster their view.

    They used it inaccurately.

    Who decides that with sola scriptura?

    One proof of this is that in refuting them the church always cited Scripture as a sufficient refutation.

     

    Of course the councils and Magisterium appealed to Scripture. But ultimately it was their authority which settled disputes. If sola scriptura had been the dominant doctrine in the early Church, we would have seen Arianism not refuted, but merely setting up as a new “church.” Because that’s what happens with sola scriptura – don’t agree with someone’s interpretation? Then just start your own church! 

    • #68
  9. Saint Augustine Member
    Saint Augustine
    @SaintAugustine

    Tomorrow, Painter Jean!

    Good night, if that’s your time zone!

    It’s just past noon in Hong Kong, and I’m saving this thread for sometime my tomorrow morning.

    • #69
  10. Teeger Coolidge
    Teeger
    @Teeger

    Painter Jean (View Comment):

    Teeger (View Comment):

    Painter Jean (View Comment):

    Teeger (View Comment):

     

    Mary can be compared to Eve, but it doesn’t logically follow that because Jesus is Last Adam that Mary is new Eve. Eve did not cause the fall of the human race, Adam did. Eve fell on her own account without affecting others. Stick with what the Bible actually says instead drawing all kinds of unjustified parallels. If you’re not careful you might be accused of deifying Mary.

    “Eve fell on her own account without affecting others”? Maybe you should heed your own advice and “stick with what the Bible actually says.” This is what the Biible says: “When the woman saw that the fruit of the tree was good for food and pleasing to the eye, and also desirable for gaining wisdom, she took some and ate it. She also gave some to her husband, who was with her, and he ate it.” How can you assert that Eve’s sin didn’t affect others, when the Bible clearly indicates that it did?

    Adam could have refused. She tempted him ignorantly. She did not cause the Fall.

    Did I say that she did? I was disputing your claim that her decision to sin and eat the forbidden fruit, and give it to Adam, didn’t affect others, to use your term.

    But that is true of everyone. Our sin may affect others. That is the nature of sin. Eve tempted Adam with her action and words, but it caused him to do nothing. He had free will. Romans 5:12 – “Through one man (not woman) sin entered the world.” He is the key person, not Eve. Paul mentions the importance of Adam. He only uses Eve as one who was deceived.

    • #70
  11. E. Kent Golding Moderator
    E. Kent Golding
    @EKentGolding

    Teeger (View Comment):

    Painter Jean (View Comment):

    Teeger (View Comment):

     

    Mary can be compared to Eve, but it doesn’t logically follow that because Jesus is Last Adam that Mary is new Eve. Eve did not cause the fall of the human race, Adam did. Eve fell on her own account without affecting others. Stick with what the Bible actually says instead drawing all kinds of unjustified parallels. If you’re not careful you might be accused of deifying Mary.

    “Eve fell on her own account without affecting others”? Maybe you should heed your own advice and “stick with what the Bible actually says.” This is what the Biible says: “When the woman saw that the fruit of the tree was good for food and pleasing to the eye, and also desirable for gaining wisdom, she took some and ate it. She also gave some to her husband, who was with her, and he ate it.” How can you assert that Eve’s sin didn’t affect others, when the Bible clearly indicates that it did?

    Adam could have refused. She tempted him ignorantly. She did not cause the Fall.

    What did?  Foreign Tariffs?    It has long been a Christian belief that God told Adam and Eve both to not eat of the fruit.  The serpent tempted Eve,  but she was not ignorant.

    From Genesis 3 verse two.

    2The woman said to the serpent, “We may eat fruit from the trees in the garden, 3but God did say, ‘You must not eat fruit from the tree that is in the middle of the garden, and you must not touch it, or you will die.’ ”

     

    • #71
  12. Painter Jean Moderator
    Painter Jean
    @PainterJean

    Teeger (View Comment):

    Painter Jean (View Comment):

    Teeger (View Comment):

    Painter Jean (View Comment):

    Teeger (View Comment):

     

    Mary can be compared to Eve, but it doesn’t logically follow that because Jesus is Last Adam that Mary is new Eve. Eve did not cause the fall of the human race, Adam did. Eve fell on her own account without affecting others. Stick with what the Bible actually says instead drawing all kinds of unjustified parallels. If you’re not careful you might be accused of deifying Mary.

    “Eve fell on her own account without affecting others”? Maybe you should heed your own advice and “stick with what the Bible actually says.” This is what the Biible says: “When the woman saw that the fruit of the tree was good for food and pleasing to the eye, and also desirable for gaining wisdom, she took some and ate it. She also gave some to her husband, who was with her, and he ate it.” How can you assert that Eve’s sin didn’t affect others, when the Bible clearly indicates that it did?

    Adam could have refused. She tempted him ignorantly. She did not cause the Fall.

    Did I say that she did? I was disputing your claim that her decision to sin and eat the forbidden fruit, and give it to Adam, didn’t affect others, to use your term.

    But that is true of everyone. Our sin may affect others. 

    Then why did you state earlier that Eve’s sin didn’t affect others?

    • #72
  13. Bill Berg Coolidge
    Bill Berg
    @Bill Berg

    Painter Jean (View Comment):

    Saint Augustine (View Comment):

    Painter Jean (View Comment):

    What’s your reason to think that among all those things not written down was some important piece of infallible apostolic teaching?

    Because, among other functions, the Church governs and the Church protects the deposit of Faith. There is no reason to think that the infallible judgment of the Church as exercised by a Council would not need to be exercised again. And it did. You’re not ignorant of history, so I presume you are aware of the many heresies which beset the early Church. Almost nvariably, the heretics used Scripture to bolster their view.

    They used it inaccurately.

    Who decides that with sola scriptura?

    One proof of this is that in refuting them the church always cited Scripture as a sufficient refutation.

     

    Of course the councils and Magisterium appealed to Scripture. But ultimately it was their authority which settled disputes. If sola scriptura had been the dominant doctrine in the early Church, we would have seen Arianism not refuted, but merely setting up as a new “church.” Because that’s what happens with sola scriptura – don’t agree with someone’s interpretation? Then just start your own church!

    As an LCMS Lutheran that grew up Baptist, moved to ELCA (it said “Lutheran” on the label). I looked strongly at Catholic when ELCA went “Early Woke” (Gay “marriage”) , but the worship of Mary,  the immaculate conception, the infallibility of the Pope ( when he speaks ex cathedra), lack of Biblical support ( Paul founded 14 churches … at least) also Andrew, Mark and James at least one each), the introduction of works into justification vs works as being fruits of the Holy Spirit, purgatory, etc lots of prayer and study led me to the LCMS church. 

    Luther never wanted to form a new church, he totally wanted to reform the Catholic Church, but the tie between church and state,  and “personalities” (Luther’s unfortunately included) prevented that. 

    Confessional LCMS is very Liturgical, believes that Baptism saves (infant baptism), the sacrament is the true body and blood (closed communion), confession and absolution, etc  Since Confessional LCMS is explicitly “not of this world”, it is increasingly more “militant” on issues like women’s ordination, homosexuality, abortion, trans, etc Thus it will likely split as  the Catholic Church did big time in the Great Schism. Like most divorces, “who left who” is still an issue, so which one was the first “Protestant” church?

    Thus it comes down to what is the churches one foundation? Obviously Christ, but then we discuss the “means” of  becoming a Christian. The “thorn” (to many churches) of the “Thief on the Cross” makes it clear that Christ is “the Kingdom, the Temple (built in 3 days),  the Way, the Truth, etc), but is the thief a “one off”, or as many Christian parents hope, can a “Prodigal Son” cry out with his dying breath, “Jesus, I believe, Lord save me! (or similar, Christ knows the heart). 

    There are always issues within churches … the Tridentine Mass churches are still “Catholic”, but they seem to heading “catholic” (although, since they are more traditional, they would argue more “true”)

    As we see with Pope Francis, the Catholic Church seems to be “Wokening”. One of the negatives/positives of the Catholic Church is that unlike God, it changes. It was not until the 2nd Lateran Council that celibacy of priests was required. As we have seen with the priests abusing boys and the shortage of priests, this is one change that may need to be reversed. Peter clearly had a wife, as he had a Mother-in-law that Christ healed. An unmarried man with a Mother-in-law would be a harder truth to accept than the Resurrection! 

    The Church requires a foundation, and being founded on the FAITH confession of Matt 16:16 seems to align with the rest of the NT. Founding a church on a sinful human vs a confession of Christ as Lord seems problematic to all but the church organization  that desires to be “the one and only”. 

    When scripture is not the foundation, then the fluid “foundation” is the decisions of various Saints, Popes, Councils, etc … will homosexual women priests be a reality someday? Councils and popes may well decide such, but the scripture will not change. 

    Also, I’m such a bad sinner that the best I could hope for as a Catholic is eternal purgatory, since nobody likes me enough to pray me out!

     

     

    • #73
  14. Teeger Coolidge
    Teeger
    @Teeger

    E. Kent Golding (View Comment):

    Teeger (View Comment):

    Painter Jean (View Comment):

    Teeger (View Comment):

     

    Mary can be compared to Eve, but it doesn’t logically follow that because Jesus is Last Adam that Mary is new Eve. Eve did not cause the fall of the human race, Adam did. Eve fell on her own account without affecting others. Stick with what the Bible actually says instead drawing all kinds of unjustified parallels. If you’re not careful you might be accused of deifying Mary.

    “Eve fell on her own account without affecting others”? Maybe you should heed your own advice and “stick with what the Bible actually says.” This is what the Biible says: “When the woman saw that the fruit of the tree was good for food and pleasing to the eye, and also desirable for gaining wisdom, she took some and ate it. She also gave some to her husband, who was with her, and he ate it.” How can you assert that Eve’s sin didn’t affect others, when the Bible clearly indicates that it did?

    Adam could have refused. She tempted him ignorantly. She did not cause the Fall.

    What did? Foreign Tariffs? It has long been a Christian belief that God told Adam and Eve both to not eat of the fruit. The serpent tempted Eve, but she was not ignorant.

    From Genesis 3 verse two.

    2The woman said to the serpent, “We may eat fruit from the trees in the garden, 3but God did say, ‘You must not eat fruit from the tree that is in the middle of the garden, and you must not touch it, or you will die.’ ”

     

    When a person is deceived as Eve was, they may lead others into the same sin they committed. Yes, God told them both not eat from that tree but then the devil’s word got into her mind and she thought she was doing right. That is how deception works. People who know what God said become convinced otherwise and they fall into sin. The scripture says that Adam was not deceived but wilfully sinned. 

    I mean “ignorantly” as in unknowingly. She did mean to make Adam sin.

     

     

     

    • #74
  15. Painter Jean Moderator
    Painter Jean
    @PainterJean

    Bill Berg (View Comment):

    As an LCMS Lutheran that grew up Baptist, moved to ELCA (it said “Lutheran” on the label). I looked strongly at Catholic when ELCA went “Early Woke” (Gay “marriage”) , but the worship of Mary, the immaculate conception, the infallibility of the Pope ( when he speaks ex cathedra), lack of Biblical support ( Paul founded 14 churches … at least) also Andrew, Mark and James at least one each), the introduction of works into justification vs works as being fruits of the Holy Spirit, purgatory, etc lots of prayer and study led me to the LCMS church.

    Luther never wanted to form a new church, he totally wanted to reform the Catholic Church, but the tie between church and state, and “personalities” (Luther’s unfortunately included) prevented that.

    Confessional LCMS is very Liturgical, believes that Baptism saves (infant baptism), the sacrament is the true body and blood (closed communion), confession and absolution, etc Since Confessional LCMS is explicitly “not of this world”, it is increasingly more “militant” on issues like women’s ordination, homosexuality, abortion, trans, etc Thus it will likely split as the Catholic Church did big time in the Great Schism. Like most divorces, “who left who” is still an issue, so which one was the first “Protestant” church?

    Thus it comes down to what is the churches one foundation? Obviously Christ, but then we discuss the “means” of becoming a Christian. The “thorn” (to many churches) of the “Thief on the Cross” makes it clear that Christ is “the Kingdom, the Temple (built in 3 days), the Way, the Truth, etc), but is the thief a “one off”, or as many Christian parents hope, can a “Prodigal Son” cry out with his dying breath, “Jesus, I believe, Lord save me! (or similar, Christ knows the heart).

    There are always issues within churches … the Tridentine Mass churches are still “Catholic”, but they seem to heading “catholic” (although, since they are more traditional, they would argue more “true”)

    As we see with Pope Francis, the Catholic Church seems to be “Wokening”. One of the negatives/positives of the Catholic Church is that unlike God, it changes. It was not until the 2nd Lateran Council that celibacy of priests was required. As we have seen with the priests abusing boys and the shortage of priests, this is one change that may need to be reversed. Peter clearly had a wife, as he had a Mother-in-law that Christ healed. An unmarried man with a Mother-in-law would be a harder truth to accept than the Resurrection!

    The Church requires a foundation, and being founded on the FAITH confession of Matt 16:16 seems to align with the rest of the NT. Founding a church on a sinful human vs a confession of Christ as Lord seems problematic to all but the church organization that desires to be “the one and only”.

    When scripture is not the foundation, then the fluid “foundation” is the decisions of various Saints, Popes, Councils, etc … will homosexual women priests be a reality someday? Councils and popes may well decide such, but the scripture will not change.

    When scripture is not the foundation, then the fluid “foundation” is the decisions of various Saints, Popes, Councils, etc … will homosexual women priests be a reality someday

    “Worship of Mary”? What a stupid insult. We don’t “worship” Mary, and it is a disgusting insult to suggest that we worship a creature instead of the Creator. In fact, the terms Catholics use make those distinctions: latria is the term for the worship due to God alone.  Dulia is the honor and respect we give to saints and angels.  Hyperdulia is the honor and respect we give to the Virgin Mary – it is a higher level, reflecting Mary’s decisive role in salvation history, as she bore the Son of God, the Saviour of the world.  Dulia and hyperdulia are NEVER at the same level as the adoration reserved for God alone.

    But your insults don’t stop there, do they? It was not until the 2nd Lateran Council that celibacy of priests was required. As we have seen with the priests abusing boys and the shortage of priests, this is one change that may need to be reversed. Let me make a wild guess and suggest that you don’t know the difference between a discipline and a doctrine. Celibacy is a discipline, not a doctrine. If you object to it, then presumably you object to St. Paul recommending it (and practicing it). As he says in First Corinthians: So that he who marries his betrothed does well; and he who refrains from marriage will do better. And because it’s a discipline, not a doctrine, there ARE married priests in the Catholic Church. There are several rites within the Catholic Church – the Latin rite (“Roman”) is just one. Byzantine Catholics and some of the other Eastern rite Catholics allow a married clergy (though not all – the Syro-Malabar Catholic Church has a celibate priesthood); so do others such as the Anglican ordinariate. Really, maybe you should refrain from criticizing Catholicism since you clearly know so little about it. Regarding the sex abuse crisis, since the rates of abuse in the Catholic Church are about the same as in Protestant denominations (and both are lower than rates of abuse in public schools), the ability to marry doesn’t appear to be a factor. Also, most of the Catholic cases involved post-pubescent minor males (ephebophilia). That is not the result of not being married! And the discipline of clerical celibacy goes back long before the 2nd Lateran Council. It was the ideal for both East and West by the time of the Council of Nicaea (A.D. 325).

    When scripture is not the foundation, then the fluid “foundation” is the decisions of various Saints, Popes, Councils, etc … will homosexual women priests be a reality someday?

    More ignorance. What does the Bible itself say is the “pillar and foundation of truth”? The Church. The Church protects the deposit of Faith, which of course includes the Scriptures. No, the Church will never ordain women. The Church will never approve of “gay marriage.” This is in stark contrast to the large number of Protestant denominations, guided by sola scriptura, who have been doing those things for decades.

    Also, I’m such a bad sinner that the best I could hope for as a Catholic is eternal purgatory, since nobody likes me enough to pray me out!

    And yet more ignorance. There is no such thing as “eternal purgatory.” Even Protestants recognize purgatory – they just don’t call it by that term.

    • #75
  16. Painter Jean Moderator
    Painter Jean
    @PainterJean

    Teeger (View Comment):

    E. Kent Golding (View Comment):

    Teeger (View Comment):

    Painter Jean (View Comment):

    Teeger (View Comment):

     

    Mary can be compared to Eve, but it doesn’t logically follow that because Jesus is Last Adam that Mary is new Eve. Eve did not cause the fall of the human race, Adam did. Eve fell on her own account without affecting others. Stick with what the Bible actually says instead drawing all kinds of unjustified parallels. If you’re not careful you might be accused of deifying Mary.

    “Eve fell on her own account without affecting others”? Maybe you should heed your own advice and “stick with what the Bible actually says.” This is what the Biible says: “When the woman saw that the fruit of the tree was good for food and pleasing to the eye, and also desirable for gaining wisdom, she took some and ate it. She also gave some to her husband, who was with her, and he ate it.” How can you assert that Eve’s sin didn’t affect others, when the Bible clearly indicates that it did?

    Adam could have refused. She tempted him ignorantly. She did not cause the Fall.

    What did? Foreign Tariffs? It has long been a Christian belief that God told Adam and Eve both to not eat of the fruit. The serpent tempted Eve, but she was not ignorant.

    From Genesis 3 verse two.

    2The woman said to the serpent, “We may eat fruit from the trees in the garden, 3but God did say, ‘You must not eat fruit from the tree that is in the middle of the garden, and you must not touch it, or you will die.’ ”

     

    When a person is deceived as Eve was, they may lead others into the same sin they committed. Yes, God told them both not eat from that tree but then the devil’s word got into her mind and she thought she was doing right. That is how deception works. People who know what God said become convinced otherwise and they fall into sin. The scripture says that Adam was not deceived but wilfully sinned.

    I mean “ignorantly” as in unknowingly. She did mean to make Adam sin.

     

     

     

    Wow, where does it say all of that in the Scriptures? With the exception of “Yes, God told them both not eat from that tree,” everything you say is just opinion. Isn’t that a bit rich, coming from someone who told me to “stick with what the Bible actually says”? And now you say that “She did mean to make Adam sin,” but earlier you claimed that her fall didn’t affect anyone else. So which is it? 

    • #76
  17. Saint Augustine Member
    Saint Augustine
    @SaintAugustine

    Painter Jean (View Comment):

    Saint Augustine (View Comment):

    Painter Jean (View Comment):

    What’s your reason to think that among all those things not written down was some important piece of infallible apostolic teaching?

    Because, among other functions, the Church governs and the Church protects the deposit of Faith. There is no reason to think that the infallible judgment of the Church as exercised by a Council would not need to be exercised again. And it did. You’re not ignorant of history, so I presume you are aware of the many heresies which beset the early Church. Almost nvariably, the heretics used Scripture to bolster their view.

    They used it inaccurately.

    Who decides that with sola scriptura?

    Someone who knows what the Scriptures say with some reliability. And/or the church, which often enough comes to the same thing.

    One proof of this is that in refuting them the church always cited Scripture as a sufficient refutation.

    Of course the councils and Magisterium appealed to Scripture. But ultimately it was their authority which settled disputes.

    What do you mean? Scripture refuted the heretics, as those who kicked them out rightly said.

    Do you mean that it was church authority that effected the kicking out?

    If sola scriptura had been the dominant doctrine in the early Church, we would have seen Arianism not refuted, but merely setting up as a new “church.” Because that’s what happens with sola scriptura – don’t agree with someone’s interpretation? Then just start your own church!

    I’m not following.

    Arian churches still exist. Or at least one does–the Jehovah’s Witnesses. In the old days Arians were still hanging around in Europe; King Theodoric of Rome in the time of Boethius, I believe, was Arian.

    There are also Unitarians, Christian Science, Mormons, Jesus-rejecting Jews, Muslims, and more.  Do you think these things all happened because Protestantism did?

    Is your point that church-splitting happens more with SS?

    Well, I expect that’s true. But only means that some serious level of church authority is useful, especially if it’s infallible.

    But is evidence that we could really use it evidence that it exists?

    • #77
  18. Painter Jean Moderator
    Painter Jean
    @PainterJean

    Saint Augustine (View Comment):

    Painter Jean (View Comment):

    Saint Augustine (View Comment):

    Painter Jean (View Comment):

    Because, among other functions, the Church governs and the Church protects the deposit of Faith. There is no reason to think that the infallible judgment of the Church as exercised by a Council would not need to be exercised again. And it did. You’re not ignorant of history, so I presume you are aware of the many heresies which beset the early Church. Almost nvariably, the heretics used Scripture to bolster their view.

    They used it inaccurately.

    Who decides that with sola scriptura?

    Someone who knows what the Scriptures say with some reliability. And/or the church, which often enough comes to the same thing.

    Even the devil knows the Scriptures, as we know from the temptation of Christ in the desert. And what churches are you referring to? Oneness Pentacostals? Episcopalians? How can Protestant denominations counter heresy, when they can’t even agree among themselves? Who has any authority?

    One proof of this is that in refuting them the church always cited Scripture as a sufficient refutation.

    Of course the councils and Magisterium appealed to Scripture. But ultimately it was their authority which settled disputes.

    What do you mean? Scripture refuted the heretics, as those who kicked them out rightly said.

    Do you mean that it was church authority that effected the kicking out?

    Did Peter use the Old Testament to determine  “God has shown me that I should not call any person profane or unclean”? (Acts 10:28)  No. It was from a vision.  This vision resulted in him baptizing Cornelius, a Gentile. Later, at the Council of Jerusalem, Peter related how the converted Gentiles had received the Holy Spirit just like the Jewish Christians had: “He [the Holy Spirit] made no distinction between us and them, for by faith he purified their hearts. Why, then, are you now putting God to the test by placing on the shoulders of the disciples a yoke that neither our ancestors nor we have been able to bear? On the contrary, we believe that we are saved through the grace of the Lord Jesus, in the same way as they.” (Acts 15: 9-11)  So here is instruction about how to settle a matter that the Scriptures were unable to settle (you can see why – on one hand there is the prophet that St. James quotes later, but on the other hand, there are the requirements of the Mosaic law in Scripture). And Jesus gave the apostles the authority to bind and loose, conferring upon them the authority to exercise judgment. If all they needed was the Scriptures, then they would not have needed the authority to bind and loose.

    If sola scriptura had been the dominant doctrine in the early Church, we would have seen Arianism not refuted, but merely setting up as a new “church.” Because that’s what happens with sola scriptura – don’t agree with someone’s interpretation? Then just start your own church!

    I’m not following.

    Arian churches still exist. Or at least one does–the Jehovah’s Witnesses. In the old days Arians were still hanging around in Europe; King Theodoric of Rome in the time of Boethius, I believe, was Arian.

    There are also Unitarians, Christian Science, Mormons, Jesus-rejecting Jews, Muslims, and more. Do you think these things all happened because Protestantism did?

    There’s not one answer that covers the range that you have there. I would say “yes” in regards to Unitarians, Christian Scientists, and Mormons. Jesus-rejecting Jews are simply Jews – Judaism is not a Christian heresy. I think a good case can be made that the origin of Islam was a heresy based on distortions of both Christianity and Judaism, but obviously Protestantism wasn’t involved.  But Islam doesn’t claim to be Christian.

    Is your point that church-splitting happens more with SS?

    Well, I expect that’s true. But only means that some serious level of church authority is useful, especially if it’s infallible.

    But is evidence that we could really use it evidence that it exists?

    I don’t know if I’d include it in a list of reasons to believe that the Church exercises authority (and that she has protection from doctrinal error, which is what infallibility is), but I would certainly offer it as a very sound reason to reject sola scriptura. Since Jesus desired unity, and sola scriptura seems to foster division and doctrinal confusion, making unity impossible, I don’t see it as a true doctrine based on its fruits (quite apart from seeing it as self-refuting).

    • #78
  19. Scott Wilmot Member
    Scott Wilmot
    @ScottWilmot

    I agree 100% with @painterjean in her comment #75. Do you really think we Catholics worship Mary @bill-berg? As was written – that is an insult, as is much else of the ignorance you spewed. Give it a rest, please.

    • #79
  20. Saint Augustine Member
    Saint Augustine
    @SaintAugustine

    Painter Jean, I need to wrap this up.  I don’t like to promise to quit, but I’m making a mental note that the next comment should probably be my last detailed comment.

    After that, depending on how the conversation goes, maybe I’ll let myself do one more trying to get to heart of the bigger issues.

    Then I really should stop.  (Should.  Sometimes I keep going when I shouldn’t!)

     

    • #80
  21. Saint Augustine Member
    Saint Augustine
    @SaintAugustine

    Painter Jean (View Comment):

    Saint Augustine (View Comment):

    Painter Jean (View Comment):

    Saint Augustine (View Comment):

    Painter Jean (View Comment):

    Because, among other functions, the Church governs and the Church protects the deposit of Faith. There is no reason to think that the infallible judgment of the Church as exercised by a Council would not need to be exercised again. And it did. You’re not ignorant of history, so I presume you are aware of the many heresies which beset the early Church. Almost nvariably, the heretics used Scripture to bolster their view.

    They used it inaccurately.

    Who decides that with sola scriptura?

    Someone who knows what the Scriptures say with some reliability. And/or the church, which often enough comes to the same thing.

    Even the devil knows the Scriptures, as we know from the temptation of Christ in the desert.

    Yes, and disobeys any applicable instructions.

    And what churches are you referring to? Oneness Pentacostals? Episcopalians?

    The orthodox ones.

    The Nicene Creed is a good way of knowing who’s who.

    How can Protestant denominations counter heresy, when they can’t even agree among themselves? Who has any authority?

    Refute them with scripture, and then, as needed, separate the wheat from any unrepentant chaff.

    Don’t Catholics do the same thing?

    One proof of this is that in refuting them the church always cited Scripture as a sufficient refutation.

    Of course the councils and Magisterium appealed to Scripture. But ultimately it was their authority which settled disputes.

    What do you mean? Scripture refuted the heretics, as those who kicked them out rightly said.

    Do you mean that it was church authority that effected the kicking out?

    Did Peter use the Old Testament to determine “God has shown me that I should not call any person profane or unclean” (Acts 10:28)? No. It was from a vision.

    Yes. It was new revelation. To an Apostle.

    Those things have stopped. You know how I can tell they’ve stopped?  I can tell because the Bible is not still being written.

    In any case, there is plenty of relevant OT Scripture.

    This vision resulted in him baptizing Cornelius, a Gentile. Later, at the Council of Jerusalem, Peter related how the converted gentiles had received the Holy Spirit just like the Jewish Christians had: “He [the Holy Spirit] made no distinction between us and them, for by faith he purified their hearts. Why, then, are you now putting God to the test by placing on the shoulders of the disciples a yoke that neither our ancestors nor we have been able to bear? On the contrary, we believe that we are saved through the grace of the Lord Jesus, in the same way as they” (Acts 15: 9-11). So here is instruction about how to settle a matter that the Scriptures were unable to settle (you can see why – on one hand there is the prophet that James quotes, but on the other hand, there are the requirments of the Mosaic law).

    You are quite mistaken.

    First, these were Apostles settling doctrine.  These were the men who were still writing the Bible.

    Second, they cited the Torah in their decision.  Study their instructions to Gentile believers; these instructions are drawn from passages like Leviticus 17 and Genesis 9:4.

    And Jesus gave the apostles the authority to bind and loose, conferring upon them the authority to exercise judgment. If all they needed was the Scriptures, then they would not have needed the authority to bind and loose.

    Obviously they had more than the already-written ScripturesThese men themselves wrote the Scriptures.

    If sola scriptura had been the dominant doctrine in the early Church, we would have seen Arianism not refuted, but merely setting up as a new “church.” Because that’s what happens with sola scriptura – don’t agree with someone’s interpretation? Then just start your own church!

    I’m not following.

    Arian churches still exist. Or at least one does–the Jehovah’s Witnesses. In the old days Arians were still hanging around in Europe; King Theodoric of Rome in the time of Boethius, I believe, was Arian.

    There are also Unitarians, Christian Science, Mormons, Jesus-rejecting Jews, Muslims, and more. Do you think these things all happened because Protestantism did?

    There’s not one answer that covers the range that you have there. I would say “yes” with Unitarians, Christian Scientists, and Mormons. Jesus-rejecting Jews are simply Jews – Judaism is not a Christian heresy.

    On Jesus-rejecting Judaism, consult Paul’s response to them.

    How exactly did Sola Scriptura cause Mormons to add more scriptures?

    I think a good case can be made that the origin of Islam was a heresy based on distortions of both Christianity and Judaism, but obviously Protestantism wasn’t involved. But Islam doesn’t claim to be Christian.

    It claims to be the true religion of Moses, David, and Jesus.

    Is your point that church-splitting happens more with SS?

    Well, I expect that’s true. But only means that some serious level of church authority is useful, especially if it’s infallible.

    But is evidence that we could really use it evidence that it exists?

    I don’t know if I’d include it in a list of reasons to believe that the Church exercises authority (and that she has protection from doctrinal error, which is what infallibility is), but I would probably offer it as a very sound reason to reject sola scriptura.

    It’s not a reason.  That’s not how sentences, logic, and evidence work.

    Why not try spelling out your argument?

    Your conclusion is something like “There is infallible authority in Church leadership, even after John died.”

    Your premise is something like “This kind of authority is very helpful.”

    How do you get from that premise to that conclusion? Is your premise something different? Is there another premise in there that you haven’t mentioned yet?

    Since Jesus desired unity, and sola scriptura seems to foster division and doctrinal confusion, making unity impossible, I don’t see it as a true doctrine based on its fruits (quite apart from seeing it as self-refuting).

    So it seems to you.  It seems to me that Roman Catholicism’s claims to infallible authority have fostered immense division.

    And there’s still nothing self-refuting about SS.  If you have a new argument or a clarification of an old one, please enlighten me.

    • #81
  22. Painter Jean Moderator
    Painter Jean
    @PainterJean

    Saint Augustine (View Comment):

    Your conclusion is something like “There is infallible authority in Church leadership, even after John died.”

    Your premise is something like “This kind of authority is very helpful.”

    I only have a minute for this – I’ll take on the rest later. But I had to address the lines above: I don’t believe I was making an argument for infallibility in the Church after John died – though yes, I believe in that – so much as I was rejecting sola scriptura. If I were to launch into an argument about Church infallibility extending through the ages, I wouldn’t start with “This kind of authority is very helpful” as a premise. Yes, it is helpful, but that is not a premise I would use.

    • #82
  23. Painter Jean Moderator
    Painter Jean
    @PainterJean

    Saint Augustine (View Comment):

    Painter Jean (View Comment):

    Saint Augustine (View Comment):

    Painter Jean (View Comment):

    Saint Augustine

    They used it inaccurately.

    Who decides that with sola scriptura?

    Someone who knows what the Scriptures say with some reliability. And/or the church, which often enough comes to the same thing.

    Even the devil knows the Scriptures, as we know from the temptation of Christ in the desert.

    Yes, and disobeys any applicable instructions.

    My point was that knowledge of the Scriptures, by itself, doesn’t guarantee orthodoxy. As I stated before, heretics used Scripture to support their heresies. You say that they “used it inaccurately,” but that’s just your opinion. You obviously interpret the Scriptures differently. So how, then, does Scripture decide between your interpretation and theirs?

    And what churches are you referring to? Oneness Pentacostals? Episcopalians?

    The orthodox ones.

    Who decides what “orthodoxy” is?

    The Nicene Creed is a good way of knowing who’s who.

    The Southern Baptist Convention did not approve of a motion to add the Nicene Creed to the Baptist Faith & Message. Episcopalians, on the other hand, do say the Creed, though they are far out there with women’s ordination and LGBTQ approval. I could give other examples, but I don’t have a lot of time. The point is that it is not a reliable indicator of orthodoxy.

    I’ll get to the rest of this when I can.

    • #83
  24. E. Kent Golding Moderator
    E. Kent Golding
    @EKentGolding

    Painter Jean (View Comment):
    Who decides what “orthodoxy” is?

    I do, of course.   Feel free to send your questions.

    • #84
  25. Subcomandante America Member
    Subcomandante America
    @TheReticulator

    E. Kent Golding (View Comment):

    Painter Jean (View Comment):
    Who decides what “orthodoxy” is?

    I do, of course. Feel free to send your questions.

    Who are you to tell me I don’t have a monopoly on the truth?   

    • #85
  26. E. Kent Golding Moderator
    E. Kent Golding
    @EKentGolding

    Subcomandante America (View Comment):

    E. Kent Golding (View Comment):

    Painter Jean (View Comment):
    Who decides what “orthodoxy” is?

    I do, of course. Feel free to send your questions.

    Who are you to tell me I don’t have a monopoly on the truth?

    My comments speak for themselves!

    • #86
  27. Saint Augustine Member
    Saint Augustine
    @SaintAugustine

    E. Kent Golding (View Comment):

    Subcomandante America (View Comment):

    E. Kent Golding (View Comment):

    Painter Jean (View Comment):
    Who decides what “orthodoxy” is?

    I do, of course. Feel free to send your questions.

    Who are you to tell me I don’t have a monopoly on the truth?

    My comments speak for themselves!

    Let me straighten this out for you guys:

    Forty-two.

    • #87
  28. E. Kent Golding Moderator
    E. Kent Golding
    @EKentGolding

    Saint Augustine (View Comment):

    E. Kent Golding (View Comment):

    Subcomandante America (View Comment):

    E. Kent Golding (View Comment):

    Painter Jean (View Comment):
    Who decides what “orthodoxy” is?

    I do, of course. Feel free to send your questions.

    Who are you to tell me I don’t have a monopoly on the truth?

    My comments speak for themselves!

    Let me straighten this out for you guys:

    Forty-two.

    Best thing I could find on the interwebs. : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/42_(number)

    Both the Kabbalistic and Hitchhiker’s explanations are interesting.

    • #88
  29. Bill Berg Coolidge
    Bill Berg
    @Bill Berg

    Scott Wilmot (View Comment):

    I agree 100% with @ painterjean in her comment #75. Do you really think we Catholics worship Mary @ bill-berg? As was written – that is an insult, as is much else of the ignorance you spewed. Give it a rest, please.

    I understand the Catholics desire distinction between “intercession: and “praying to”. 

    1 Peter 2:5 says ” For there is one God, and there is one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus. 

    Since there is one mediator, it seems easy to see how protestants are misled by thinking there was one mediator, so praying to another mediator could be problematic. 

    As Christ teaches us how to pray in the Lord’s Prayer, he seems to suggest “Our Father”.  (and since we are trinitarian, The Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit) would also be scriptural. 

    I also understand the criticality of “the church” being the cornerstone of Catholicism. Apostolic succession being a critical factor. 

    Timothy 1 3-4  “As I urged you when I went into Macedonia, stay there in Ephesus so that you may command certain people not to teach false doctrines any longer or to devote themselves to myths and endless genealogies. Such things promote controversial speculations rather than advancing God’s work—which is by faith.”

    I have no desire to offend. The word of Giod is often a “sword”, Ephesians 6:17 “Take the helmet of salvation and the sword of the Spirit, which is the word of God.”

    Matt 10:34  “Do not think that I have come to bring peace to the earth. I have not come to bring peace, but a sword.”

    May the Lord bless you and keep you! 

    • #89
  30. Bill Berg Coolidge
    Bill Berg
    @Bill Berg

    Painter Jean (View Comment):

    Bill Berg (View Comment):

    As an LCMS Lutheran that grew up Baptist, moved to ELCA (it said “Lutheran” on the label). I looked strongly at Catholic when ELCA went “Early Woke” (Gay “marriage”) , but the worship of Mary, the immaculate conception, the infallibility of the Pope ( when he speaks ex cathedra), lack of Biblical support ( Paul founded 14 churches … at least) also Andrew, Mark and James at least one each), the introduction of works into justification vs works as being fruits of the Holy Spirit, purgatory, etc lots of prayer and study led me to the LCMS church.

    Luther never wanted to form a new church, he totally wanted to reform the Catholic Church, but the tie between church and state, and “personalities” (Luther’s unfortunately included) prevented that.

    Confessional LCMS is very Liturgical, believes that Baptism saves (infant baptism), the sacrament is the true body and blood (closed communion), confession and absolution, etc Since Confessional LCMS is explicitly “not of this world”, it is increasingly more “militant” on issues like women’s ordination, homosexuality, abortion, trans, etc Thus it will likely split as the Catholic Church did big time in the Great Schism. Like most divorces, “who left who” is still an issue, so which one was the first “Protestant” church?

    Thus it comes down to what is the churches one foundation? Obviously Christ, but then we discuss the “means” of becoming a Christian. The “thorn” (to many churches) of the “Thief on the Cross” makes it clear that Christ is “the Kingdom, the Temple (built in 3 days), the Way, the Truth, etc), but is the thief a “one off”, or as many Christian parents hope, can a “Prodigal Son” cry out with his dying breath, “Jesus, I believe, Lord save me! (or similar, Christ knows the heart).

    There are always issues within churches … the Tridentine Mass churches are still “Catholic”, but they seem to heading “catholic” (although, since they are more traditional, they would argue more “true”)

    As we see with Pope Francis, the Catholic Church seems to be “Wokening”. One of the negatives/positives of the Catholic Church is that unlike God, it changes. It was not until the 2nd Lateran Council that celibacy of priests was required. As we have seen with the priests abusing boys and the shortage of priests, this is one change that may need to be reversed. Peter clearly had a wife, as he had a Mother-in-law that Christ healed. An unmarried man with a Mother-in-law would be a harder truth to accept than the Resurrection!

    The Church requires a foundation, and being founded on the FAITH confession of Matt 16:16 seems to align with the rest of the NT. Founding a church on a sinful human vs a confession of Christ as Lord seems problematic to all but the church organization that desires to be “the one and only”.

    When scripture is not the foundation, then the fluid “foundation” is the decisions of various Saints, Popes, Councils, etc … will homosexual women priests be a reality someday? Councils and popes may well decide such, but the scripture will not change.

    When scripture is not the foundation, then the fluid “foundation” is the decisions of various Saints, Popes, Councils, etc … will homosexual women priests be a reality someday

    “Worship of Mary”? What a stupid insult. We don’t “worship” Mary, and it is a disgusting insult to suggest that we worship a creature instead of the Creator. In fact, the terms Catholics use make those distinctions: latria is the term for the worship due to God alone. Dulia is the honor and respect we give to saints and angels. Hyperdulia is the honor and respect we give to the Virgin Mary – it is a higher level, reflecting Mary’s decisive role in salvation history, as she bore the Son of God, the Saviour of the world. Dulia and hyperdulia are NEVER at the same level as the adoration reserved for God alone.

    But your insults don’t stop there, do they? It was not until the 2nd Lateran Council that celibacy of priests was required. As we have seen with the priests abusing boys and the shortage of priests, this is one change that may need to be reversed. Let me make a wild guess and suggest that you don’t know the difference between a discipline and a doctrine. Celibacy is a discipline, not a doctrine. If you object to it, then presumably you object to St. Paul recommending it (and practicing it). As he says in First Corinthians: So that he who marries his betrothed does well; and he who refrains from marriage will do better. And because it’s a discipline, not a doctrine, there ARE married priests in the Catholic Church. There are several rites within the Catholic Church – the Latin rite (“Roman”) is just one. Byzantine Catholics and some of the other Eastern rite Catholics allow a married clergy (though not all – the Syro-Malabar Catholic Church has a celibate priesthood); so do others such as the Anglican ordinariate. Really, maybe you should refrain from criticizing Catholicism since you clearly know so little about it. Regarding the sex abuse crisis, since the rates of abuse in the Catholic Church are about the same as in Protestant denominations (and both are lower than rates of abuse in public schools), the ability to marry doesn’t appear to be a factor. Also, most of the Catholic cases involved post-pubescent minor males (ephebophilia). That is not the result of not being married! And the discipline of clerical celibacy goes back long before the 2nd Lateran Council. It was the ideal for both East and West by the time of the Council of Nicaea (A.D. 325).

    When scripture is not the foundation, then the fluid “foundation” is the decisions of various Saints, Popes, Councils, etc … will homosexual women priests be a reality someday?

    More ignorance. What does the Bible itself say is the “pillar and foundation of truth”? The Church. The Church protects the deposit of Faith, which of course includes the Scriptures. No, the Church will never ordain women. The Church will never approve of “gay marriage.” This is in stark contrast to the large number of Protestant denominations, guided by sola scriptura, who have been doing those things for decades.

    Also, I’m such a bad sinner that the best I could hope for as a Catholic is eternal purgatory, since nobody likes me enough to pray me out!

    And yet more ignorance. There is no such thing as “eternal purgatory.” Even Protestants recognize purgatory – they just don’t call it by that term.

    • #90
Become a member to join the conversation. Or sign in if you're already a member.